Christians teach that Jesus is God incarnate—God who became flesh.
The Bible says:
“The Word was God.” (John 1:1)
Then it says:
“The Word became flesh and dwelt among us.” (John 1:14)
Thomas even called Jesus:
“My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28)
So far, the message seems clear: Jesus is God.
But then Jesus said:
“Not that anyone has seen the Father except He who is from God; He has seen the Father.”(John 6:46)
And John also wrote:
“No one has ever seen God…” (John 1:18)
Now here’s what confuses me.
If Jesus is truly God…
If He is God made flesh…
Didn’t Peter see Him?
Didn’t John see Him?
Didn’t the Pharisees see Him?
Didn’t Pilate see Him?
Didn’t the soldiers who crucified Him see Him?
Didn’t thousands see Him teach, heal the sick, and raise the dead?
Then why does Jesus speak as though the Father is someone He alone has seen?
Does this sound like someone speaking as God, or like someone speaking about another Person?
If Jesus is God, why didn’t He simply say:
“No one has seen Me except those standing before Me.”
Instead, He said:
“No one has seen the Father except He who is from God.”
How do you reconcile these verses?
I’m not attacking Christianity.
I’m asking a sincere question that deserves a sincere biblical answer.
Let’s discuss—with Scripture, reason, and respect.
#Christianity #BibleStudy #Faith #Truth #ThinkAgain #Debate #Questions #jollyonyeka
Leave a Reply